If most native English people are descended from Anglo Saxon Germans and Norman French, were the Founding?
Q. Fathers also?
Asked by N - Mon Jul 26 18:59:17 2010 - - 4 Answers - 0 Comments
Q. Fathers also?
Asked by N - Mon Jul 26 18:59:17 2010 - - 4 Answers - 0 Comments
Where can I find a list of all the Norman French families who settled in Ireland after Strongbow's invasion
Q. Where can I find a list of all the Norman French families who settled in Ireland after Strongbow's invasion
Asked by Rita K - Sun Dec 23 00:09:24 2007 - - 1 Answers - 0 Comments
A. There must be some posho site for this. Bog trotter meself.
Answered by Jim L - Sun Dec 23 06:32:42 2007
Q. Where can I find a list of all the Norman French families who settled in Ireland after Strongbow's invasion
Asked by Rita K - Sun Dec 23 00:09:24 2007 - - 1 Answers - 0 Comments
A. There must be some posho site for this. Bog trotter meself.
Answered by Jim L - Sun Dec 23 06:32:42 2007
Why didn't England become culturally French after the Norman Conquest?
Q. Almost all of the new aristocracy was Norman. Did the English "re-conquer" England or is it still, in actuality, dominated by the descendants of the Normans?
Asked by DAVID S - Wed Nov 7 14:28:53 2007 - - 10 Answers - 0 Comments
A. After the conquest of 1066, it is certainly true that a number of Normans came to England. However, certain things meant that French culture did not become totally dominant at that time. Indeed, most current historians agree that the Normans in England had become assimilated into a newly conceived English identity by the beginning of the 12th century. This newly conceived identity had aspects of both Norman and pre-conquest English characteristics. We should note from this that identity, even concepts of "ethnicity," are extremely fluid. Unlike 19th century social scientists who argued that ethnicity was based predominantly upon blood descent, most modern social scientists recognise that culture is actually far more important. Moreover,… [cont.]
Answered by Gerald - Wed Nov 7 15:07:10 2007
Q. Almost all of the new aristocracy was Norman. Did the English "re-conquer" England or is it still, in actuality, dominated by the descendants of the Normans?
Asked by DAVID S - Wed Nov 7 14:28:53 2007 - - 10 Answers - 0 Comments
A. After the conquest of 1066, it is certainly true that a number of Normans came to England. However, certain things meant that French culture did not become totally dominant at that time. Indeed, most current historians agree that the Normans in England had become assimilated into a newly conceived English identity by the beginning of the 12th century. This newly conceived identity had aspects of both Norman and pre-conquest English characteristics. We should note from this that identity, even concepts of "ethnicity," are extremely fluid. Unlike 19th century social scientists who argued that ethnicity was based predominantly upon blood descent, most modern social scientists recognise that culture is actually far more important. Moreover,… [cont.]
Answered by Gerald - Wed Nov 7 15:07:10 2007
How much Scandinavian blood is in the veins of the modern day French Normans?
Q. I asked this question before but didn't get the answers i need for it. I would like to know what percentage of Scandinavian blood is in the modern day Normans of France. I am French and of Norman heritage mostly so I am just kinda curious. When the Normans went on their raids elsewhere did they all leave or did some leave and some stay, or did many of them when first arriving in Normandy breed with the people with some of them staying while others left?
Asked by bumblebutt - Fri Jul 9 15:54:47 2010 - - 2 Answers - 0 Comments
A. Probably not much at all. The Normans in 1066 had already long traded in their longboats for war horses; their Scandinavian heritage was already a matter of the past. Undoubtedly there is probably a bit of genetic and cultural remnants in the current Normans, but negligible at best.
Answered by Randaal - Fri Jul 9 16:26:12 2010
Q. I asked this question before but didn't get the answers i need for it. I would like to know what percentage of Scandinavian blood is in the modern day Normans of France. I am French and of Norman heritage mostly so I am just kinda curious. When the Normans went on their raids elsewhere did they all leave or did some leave and some stay, or did many of them when first arriving in Normandy breed with the people with some of them staying while others left?
Asked by bumblebutt - Fri Jul 9 15:54:47 2010 - - 2 Answers - 0 Comments
A. Probably not much at all. The Normans in 1066 had already long traded in their longboats for war horses; their Scandinavian heritage was already a matter of the past. Undoubtedly there is probably a bit of genetic and cultural remnants in the current Normans, but negligible at best.
Answered by Randaal - Fri Jul 9 16:26:12 2010
is Norman French still spoken in the Channel Islands?
Q. is Norman French still spoken in the Channel Islands?
Asked by Kevin7 - Sat Jan 2 09:28:26 2010 - - 1 Answers - 0 Comments
A. yes and no: Culturally, the Norman language predominated in the islands until the 19th century, when increasing influence from English-speaking settlers and easier transport links led to Anglicisation There are four main dialects/languages of Norman in the islands, Auregnais (Alderney, extinct in late 20th century), Dgernesiais (Guernsey), Jerriais (Jersey) and Sercquiais (Sark, an offshoot of Jerriais).
Answered by Dinah - Sat Jan 2 09:40:57 2010
Q. is Norman French still spoken in the Channel Islands?
Asked by Kevin7 - Sat Jan 2 09:28:26 2010 - - 1 Answers - 0 Comments
A. yes and no: Culturally, the Norman language predominated in the islands until the 19th century, when increasing influence from English-speaking settlers and easier transport links led to Anglicisation There are four main dialects/languages of Norman in the islands, Auregnais (Alderney, extinct in late 20th century), Dgernesiais (Guernsey), Jerriais (Jersey) and Sercquiais (Sark, an offshoot of Jerriais).
Answered by Dinah - Sat Jan 2 09:40:57 2010
Can you list an English word which cognates in Danish, French, Latin and Greek are all also current in English?
Q. I was thinking of the word, royal. Anglo-Saxon English word therefor is kingsly. The Norman-French-English word is royal and royale, the Latin would be regal and the Greek is ?
Asked by Fresserheim - Wed Jul 15 14:15:06 2009 - - 2 Answers - 0 Comments
A. The greek is 'vasilikos' the same word is used for 'basil' (which is derived from the greek word). KIng is 'vasilias', ancient greek 'anax' or 'vasileus' 'Cognate' doesn't mean that they are exactly the same, but of the same origin. There are many words that cognate, mostly modern technological words, or scientific terms that are derived from ancient greek or latin. For example: politics (english) politique (french) politik (danish) derived from the greek 'politiki' ( ). But in latin it is 'publica' although in Italian it is 'politica' Latin and greek both contributed in other languages, since they had their own unique words for many terms, and that's why it is hard to cognate. The easiest way is to find a greek or latin word and then… [cont.]
Answered by morFing - Wed Jul 15 16:55:18 2009
Q. I was thinking of the word, royal. Anglo-Saxon English word therefor is kingsly. The Norman-French-English word is royal and royale, the Latin would be regal and the Greek is ?
Asked by Fresserheim - Wed Jul 15 14:15:06 2009 - - 2 Answers - 0 Comments
A. The greek is 'vasilikos' the same word is used for 'basil' (which is derived from the greek word). KIng is 'vasilias', ancient greek 'anax' or 'vasileus' 'Cognate' doesn't mean that they are exactly the same, but of the same origin. There are many words that cognate, mostly modern technological words, or scientific terms that are derived from ancient greek or latin. For example: politics (english) politique (french) politik (danish) derived from the greek 'politiki' ( ). But in latin it is 'publica' although in Italian it is 'politica' Latin and greek both contributed in other languages, since they had their own unique words for many terms, and that's why it is hard to cognate. The easiest way is to find a greek or latin word and then… [cont.]
Answered by morFing - Wed Jul 15 16:55:18 2009
Why do Brits have such disdain for the French, when William himself was a Norman?
Q. Why do Brits have such disdain for the French, when William himself was a Norman?
Asked by NONAME - Tue Mar 31 04:30:49 2009 - - 17 Answers - 0 Comments
A. I don't know. I'm not British, so I don't presume to have a real answer.
Answered by I will be avenged! - Tue Mar 31 04:38:23 2009
Q. Why do Brits have such disdain for the French, when William himself was a Norman?
Asked by NONAME - Tue Mar 31 04:30:49 2009 - - 17 Answers - 0 Comments
A. I don't know. I'm not British, so I don't presume to have a real answer.
Answered by I will be avenged! - Tue Mar 31 04:38:23 2009
Has French ever conquered England (even partially)? Norman was not French, but were Scandinavian, right?.?
Q. England has definitely conquered the northern part of France (Hundred Years War etc). But has French ever invade and occupy the part of England?
Asked by rap1zip1 - Mon Sep 17 17:15:13 2007 - - 8 Answers - 0 Comments
A. Normans were 'North- Men', originally from Scandanavia but naturalised in Normandy and they spoke Norman French a dialect of Old French. The last invasion of Britain, by any nation, was in 1377 when the French landed on the Isle of Wight off the southern coast of England and burned most of the towns and the villages to the ground. The native Islanders withdrew to Carisbrooke Castle in the geographical centre of the Island, and home to the ruling Lords, for safety and after a lengthy seige the Islanders armed with whatever came to hand, including farm implements fought back, massacred a large number of French in an area, still known today as Node Hill (from Old English noddy meaning dead) and eventually drove the French back into the sea.… [cont.]
Answered by mangas_coloradas - Mon Sep 17 22:12:22 2007
Q. England has definitely conquered the northern part of France (Hundred Years War etc). But has French ever invade and occupy the part of England?
Asked by rap1zip1 - Mon Sep 17 17:15:13 2007 - - 8 Answers - 0 Comments
A. Normans were 'North- Men', originally from Scandanavia but naturalised in Normandy and they spoke Norman French a dialect of Old French. The last invasion of Britain, by any nation, was in 1377 when the French landed on the Isle of Wight off the southern coast of England and burned most of the towns and the villages to the ground. The native Islanders withdrew to Carisbrooke Castle in the geographical centre of the Island, and home to the ruling Lords, for safety and after a lengthy seige the Islanders armed with whatever came to hand, including farm implements fought back, massacred a large number of French in an area, still known today as Node Hill (from Old English noddy meaning dead) and eventually drove the French back into the sea.… [cont.]
Answered by mangas_coloradas - Mon Sep 17 22:12:22 2007
are the french canadians of quebec mostly of norman and breton ancestry?
Q. Normans from normandy france and bretons from brittany france
Asked by Crazydude - Mon Oct 27 14:50:05 2008 - - 2 Answers - 0 Comments
A. most were from North western and western France, so many came from Normandie, Poitou... Bretagne not so much though
Answered by symphonya - Tue Oct 28 09:42:04 2008
Q. Normans from normandy france and bretons from brittany france
Asked by Crazydude - Mon Oct 27 14:50:05 2008 - - 2 Answers - 0 Comments
A. most were from North western and western France, so many came from Normandie, Poitou... Bretagne not so much though
Answered by symphonya - Tue Oct 28 09:42:04 2008
The Norman Conquest and its effect on English?
Q. I understand that many words of poultry come from French and Anglo-Normans but what other set of vocabulary words are from French/Anglo-Normans. Like beef, cow, etc. Another set of it?
Asked by eunice : ) - Mon Nov 3 20:37:52 2008 - - 1 Answers - 0 Comments
A. to flirt = from "conter fleurette" tennis = from "tenez( verb tenir ) scout = from "ecouter" mutton" = from "mutton" etc more than half of the english vocabulary comes from the french.
Answered by Austerlitz - Tue Nov 4 12:48:00 2008
Q. I understand that many words of poultry come from French and Anglo-Normans but what other set of vocabulary words are from French/Anglo-Normans. Like beef, cow, etc. Another set of it?
Asked by eunice : ) - Mon Nov 3 20:37:52 2008 - - 1 Answers - 0 Comments
A. to flirt = from "conter fleurette" tennis = from "tenez( verb tenir ) scout = from "ecouter" mutton" = from "mutton" etc more than half of the english vocabulary comes from the french.
Answered by Austerlitz - Tue Nov 4 12:48:00 2008
Do people still speak Anglo-French or Anglo-Norman?
Q. I know that "the form of this dialect was used in English law until the 17th century," but do people still use it? wow you people are great help!
Asked by Livin it - Fri Mar 16 17:55:55 2007 - - 1 Answers - 0 Comments
A. Not really, but you can still find a few who speak very closely related languages on the Channel Islands. There are three Norman-derived languages there - one for Jersey, one for Guernsey, and one for Sark, although the Sark version is almost extinct, These would probably have been mutually intelligible with Anglo-Norman.
Answered by dollhaus - Fri Mar 16 20:02:30 2007
Q. I know that "the form of this dialect was used in English law until the 17th century," but do people still use it? wow you people are great help!
Asked by Livin it - Fri Mar 16 17:55:55 2007 - - 1 Answers - 0 Comments
A. Not really, but you can still find a few who speak very closely related languages on the Channel Islands. There are three Norman-derived languages there - one for Jersey, one for Guernsey, and one for Sark, although the Sark version is almost extinct, These would probably have been mutually intelligible with Anglo-Norman.
Answered by dollhaus - Fri Mar 16 20:02:30 2007
The Normans,French or Scandinavian?
Q. Yes they adopted the language, but there are people in my country now who speak English but don't consider themselves so. Norman French borrowed very heavily from the language they originally spoke, Old Norse.The French fought with them and certainly didn't consider them to be French. Norse settlement of England also is a pointer as we had the Danelaw consisting of peoples who had arrived from Scandinavia, they didn't consider themselves English though they probably spoke it through necessity.Would be interesting to hear from some Normans on this aswel.Sometimes i get the Impression that the French claim them for their own as it is as close to a victory over the English on English soil as they re ever likely to get.Where as Victories over… [cont.]
Asked by mikees1 - Fri Apr 9 12:53:14 2010 - - 5 Answers - 1 Comments
A. So far, historians have not finished wondering why the Scandinavian invaders in today's Normandy adopted the French language so quickly, in contrary to the change of language which happened when the Anglo-Saxons invaded Britain. Most of them favour the idea that the Norman invaders were a society of young men who quickly married French women and lost their cultural identity within a short time because of this. When the Anglo-Saxons left their home countries, an unknown number of village communities was obviously emigrating completely, rebuilding their old family life at a new place.
Answered by . otto.saxo . - Sat Apr 10 07:15:02 2010
Q. Yes they adopted the language, but there are people in my country now who speak English but don't consider themselves so. Norman French borrowed very heavily from the language they originally spoke, Old Norse.The French fought with them and certainly didn't consider them to be French. Norse settlement of England also is a pointer as we had the Danelaw consisting of peoples who had arrived from Scandinavia, they didn't consider themselves English though they probably spoke it through necessity.Would be interesting to hear from some Normans on this aswel.Sometimes i get the Impression that the French claim them for their own as it is as close to a victory over the English on English soil as they re ever likely to get.Where as Victories over… [cont.]
Asked by mikees1 - Fri Apr 9 12:53:14 2010 - - 5 Answers - 1 Comments
A. So far, historians have not finished wondering why the Scandinavian invaders in today's Normandy adopted the French language so quickly, in contrary to the change of language which happened when the Anglo-Saxons invaded Britain. Most of them favour the idea that the Norman invaders were a society of young men who quickly married French women and lost their cultural identity within a short time because of this. When the Anglo-Saxons left their home countries, an unknown number of village communities was obviously emigrating completely, rebuilding their old family life at a new place.
Answered by . otto.saxo . - Sat Apr 10 07:15:02 2010
when french stopped to be natively spoken in England?
Q. French had been the language of the aristocracy of England starting from william norman conquest, for long time, but how many time exactly? When English (people's language) came to replace french in the aristocracy (such as kings and queens) as their native language?
Asked by NAUTIS - Wed Oct 21 05:40:14 2009 - - 3 Answers - 0 Comments
A. The Norman Conquest of 1066 by William the Conqueror marks the beginning of an era of French influence in England. However, despite logical reasoning, French did not become either the official or unofficial language of England. William was not combining the lands of Normandy and England, and had no wish to replace language or culture. Latin and English were used for most documents and formal proclamations by William, and the English legal system was renewed, not replaced. After all, William was claiming legitimacy to his succession. Nevertheless, the upper class was almost completely taken over by (French speaking) Normans, and although the system was English, many of the legal proceedings and documents were in French. It is important to… [cont.]
Answered by Skookum - Wed Oct 21 06:37:20 2009
Q. French had been the language of the aristocracy of England starting from william norman conquest, for long time, but how many time exactly? When English (people's language) came to replace french in the aristocracy (such as kings and queens) as their native language?
Asked by NAUTIS - Wed Oct 21 05:40:14 2009 - - 3 Answers - 0 Comments
A. The Norman Conquest of 1066 by William the Conqueror marks the beginning of an era of French influence in England. However, despite logical reasoning, French did not become either the official or unofficial language of England. William was not combining the lands of Normandy and England, and had no wish to replace language or culture. Latin and English were used for most documents and formal proclamations by William, and the English legal system was renewed, not replaced. After all, William was claiming legitimacy to his succession. Nevertheless, the upper class was almost completely taken over by (French speaking) Normans, and although the system was English, many of the legal proceedings and documents were in French. It is important to… [cont.]
Answered by Skookum - Wed Oct 21 06:37:20 2009
What are the origins of the surname Boyce?
Q. I come from the Boyce family, and my best guess is that it came from the Norman/French surname Dubois, which was then anglisized in the Isles after the norman conquest. I am positive my family came from either England, Scotland, or Ireland. Does anyone have any extra insight/information into the Boyce surname?
Asked by Gavri'el Gruszka - Thu Jul 17 21:14:29 2008 - - 4 Answers - 0 Comments
A. BOYCE Name Meaning and History 1. Scottish, northern Irish, and English: topographic name for someone who lived by a wood, from Old French bois wood . 2. English: patronymic from the Middle English nickname boy lad , servant , or possibly from an Old English personal name Boia, of uncertain origin. Examples such as Aluuinus Boi (Domesday Book) and Ivo le Boye (Lincolnshire 1232) support the view that it was a byname or even an occupational name; examples such as Stephanus filius Boie (Northumbria 1202) suggest that it was in use as a personal name in the Middle English period. 3. Irish: Anglicized form of Gaelic O Buadhaigh (see Bogue). 4. Anglicized spelling of French Bois, cognate with 1. Source: Surname: BOYCE Recorded… [cont.]
Answered by seraph1818 - Thu Jul 17 21:55:17 2008
Q. I come from the Boyce family, and my best guess is that it came from the Norman/French surname Dubois, which was then anglisized in the Isles after the norman conquest. I am positive my family came from either England, Scotland, or Ireland. Does anyone have any extra insight/information into the Boyce surname?
Asked by Gavri'el Gruszka - Thu Jul 17 21:14:29 2008 - - 4 Answers - 0 Comments
A. BOYCE Name Meaning and History 1. Scottish, northern Irish, and English: topographic name for someone who lived by a wood, from Old French bois wood . 2. English: patronymic from the Middle English nickname boy lad , servant , or possibly from an Old English personal name Boia, of uncertain origin. Examples such as Aluuinus Boi (Domesday Book) and Ivo le Boye (Lincolnshire 1232) support the view that it was a byname or even an occupational name; examples such as Stephanus filius Boie (Northumbria 1202) suggest that it was in use as a personal name in the Middle English period. 3. Irish: Anglicized form of Gaelic O Buadhaigh (see Bogue). 4. Anglicized spelling of French Bois, cognate with 1. Source: Surname: BOYCE Recorded… [cont.]
Answered by seraph1818 - Thu Jul 17 21:55:17 2008
Is English the newest of European languages?
Q. derived from German, Norman French and Latin?
Asked by Steve - Wed Mar 3 14:51:58 2010 - - 3 Answers - 0 Comments
A. First off, English did not come from German. It came from GermanIC, West Germanic to be more specific. German as we know it today did not exist at the time. English's closest relative is Frisian, a West Germanic language spoken along the North Sea and in the Frisian Islands. Not really. In fact, it's one of the oldest. About the only ones who can lay claim to being older are Greek, Basque, and Hungarian. Eric has already covered the Germanic ones. Those are so confused and intertwined it's harder than usual to say when a specific language evolved. You can get all sorts of arguments as to the date English became a separate language, but around 500 A.D. is a good start. At that time, the remnants of the Roman Empire were still… [cont.]
Answered by Tom L - Wed Mar 3 18:39:07 2010
Q. derived from German, Norman French and Latin?
Asked by Steve - Wed Mar 3 14:51:58 2010 - - 3 Answers - 0 Comments
A. First off, English did not come from German. It came from GermanIC, West Germanic to be more specific. German as we know it today did not exist at the time. English's closest relative is Frisian, a West Germanic language spoken along the North Sea and in the Frisian Islands. Not really. In fact, it's one of the oldest. About the only ones who can lay claim to being older are Greek, Basque, and Hungarian. Eric has already covered the Germanic ones. Those are so confused and intertwined it's harder than usual to say when a specific language evolved. You can get all sorts of arguments as to the date English became a separate language, but around 500 A.D. is a good start. At that time, the remnants of the Roman Empire were still… [cont.]
Answered by Tom L - Wed Mar 3 18:39:07 2010
What are the physical features of the Normans?
Q. What is the difference between an Anglo-Norman and an Anglo-Saxon? Between norman and french? Are normans related to scandinavians? Are normans related to celts? What are some examples of norman people today?
Asked by Seth - Wed Jul 28 15:05:54 2010 - - 2 Answers - 0 Comments
A. The Anglo-Saxons tend to be more dolichocephalic than Normans Normans are taller than the average french, have lighter hair and eye color, they have lower cephalic index than french since frenchs are usually mesocephalic, normans tend to have be straight nosed Normans are related to scandinavians since they came from Scandinavia (Jutland, Norway,) Norman means 'Man from the North' Normans are not related to the Celts People living in Normandy (France) Guernsey, Jersey, England, Iceland, Greenland, Ukraine and even a small amount of the population of Sicily, Tunisia, Greece have some norman ancestry.
Answered by Natural Rights r the TRUE RIGHTS - Thu Jul 29 03:42:59 2010
Q. What is the difference between an Anglo-Norman and an Anglo-Saxon? Between norman and french? Are normans related to scandinavians? Are normans related to celts? What are some examples of norman people today?
Asked by Seth - Wed Jul 28 15:05:54 2010 - - 2 Answers - 0 Comments
A. The Anglo-Saxons tend to be more dolichocephalic than Normans Normans are taller than the average french, have lighter hair and eye color, they have lower cephalic index than french since frenchs are usually mesocephalic, normans tend to have be straight nosed Normans are related to scandinavians since they came from Scandinavia (Jutland, Norway,) Norman means 'Man from the North' Normans are not related to the Celts People living in Normandy (France) Guernsey, Jersey, England, Iceland, Greenland, Ukraine and even a small amount of the population of Sicily, Tunisia, Greece have some norman ancestry.
Answered by Natural Rights r the TRUE RIGHTS - Thu Jul 29 03:42:59 2010
Is the English language closer to French or German?
Q. I think French, think about our everyday words and the influence of the Normans. I know English counts as Germanic, but I that think the French influence is underestimated.
Asked by Dermot - Sat Sep 5 00:08:40 2009 - - 3 Answers - 0 Comments
A. German-English and German are both High Germanic languages. Our high-frequency words are predominantly Germanic, and we have a heavily Germanic grammar. While technically, most words in the dictionary will be Romance derived, these are frequently prone to be obscure words that do not pop up in everyday conversation. The French in our language is highly superficial-largely Franco contribution to our lexicon, particularly in the names of clerical, governmental, religious, or cooking words. I would actually say that the French influence is overexaggerated. Peace
Answered by scaerdrys - Sat Sep 5 00:15:00 2009
Q. I think French, think about our everyday words and the influence of the Normans. I know English counts as Germanic, but I that think the French influence is underestimated.
Asked by Dermot - Sat Sep 5 00:08:40 2009 - - 3 Answers - 0 Comments
A. German-English and German are both High Germanic languages. Our high-frequency words are predominantly Germanic, and we have a heavily Germanic grammar. While technically, most words in the dictionary will be Romance derived, these are frequently prone to be obscure words that do not pop up in everyday conversation. The French in our language is highly superficial-largely Franco contribution to our lexicon, particularly in the names of clerical, governmental, religious, or cooking words. I would actually say that the French influence is overexaggerated. Peace
Answered by scaerdrys - Sat Sep 5 00:15:00 2009
Do many Americans identify with other countries in terms of ancestry, rather than Britain?
Q. and should they be allowed to? ...even if the British are themselves descended from Saxon Germans, continental Celts, and Norman French
Asked by Lee - Fri Apr 30 04:02:51 2010 - - 3 Answers - 0 Comments
A. Yes. America is one of the most (if not the most) ethnically diverse country in the world. We have citizens that are from just about every other country. Almost all citizens are descended from some form of immigration to America. Not every white American descended from the British. As for being allowed to, what do you mean? You think that being an American means that you give up your heritage? I admit, that most African Americans wouldn't know exactly what country in Africa that their ancestors were from, being that they were taken as slaves. And the Native Americans are the only group of people who aren't descended from immigrants.
Answered by The Baron - Fri Apr 30 04:20:42 2010
Q. and should they be allowed to? ...even if the British are themselves descended from Saxon Germans, continental Celts, and Norman French
Asked by Lee - Fri Apr 30 04:02:51 2010 - - 3 Answers - 0 Comments
A. Yes. America is one of the most (if not the most) ethnically diverse country in the world. We have citizens that are from just about every other country. Almost all citizens are descended from some form of immigration to America. Not every white American descended from the British. As for being allowed to, what do you mean? You think that being an American means that you give up your heritage? I admit, that most African Americans wouldn't know exactly what country in Africa that their ancestors were from, being that they were taken as slaves. And the Native Americans are the only group of people who aren't descended from immigrants.
Answered by The Baron - Fri Apr 30 04:20:42 2010
Any good resources for Norman & Welsh language in the 11th century?
Q. Hi, I'm currently doing research for a historical novel that I'm planning to write that is based in 11th century europe (wales/normandy) around the year 1071. What I'm looking for are resources/ideas on where to find common norman words used during that time to add to the dialogue. For example, when the normans speak, I would like to throw in some Norman (read French) words to add more to the story...and if anyone has similar resources for Welsh words, that would be great too. Thanks for all your help!
Asked by pickupgrrl - Tue Dec 16 13:44:34 2008 - - 2 Answers - 0 Comments
A. There is an Anglo-Norman dictionary online at You can use the "Search Translations Form" on the home page to find Anglo-Norman equivalents to English words (not phrases) but you will need a good grounding in Anglo-Norman grammar and culture to be able to use these terms convincingly. This should only take you around four years of intensive study to learn . . . You should also be aware that Norman French is not the same language that was spoken in France at that time and the Normans did not consider themselves to be French or even related to the French. As for 11th century Welsh, the language at that time is termed "Old Welsh" (Hen Gymraeg) and this can only be accessed via a University Graduate course as far as I am aware. The is… [cont.]
Answered by Brother Ranulf - Tue Dec 16 14:06:02 2008
Q. Hi, I'm currently doing research for a historical novel that I'm planning to write that is based in 11th century europe (wales/normandy) around the year 1071. What I'm looking for are resources/ideas on where to find common norman words used during that time to add to the dialogue. For example, when the normans speak, I would like to throw in some Norman (read French) words to add more to the story...and if anyone has similar resources for Welsh words, that would be great too. Thanks for all your help!
Asked by pickupgrrl - Tue Dec 16 13:44:34 2008 - - 2 Answers - 0 Comments
A. There is an Anglo-Norman dictionary online at You can use the "Search Translations Form" on the home page to find Anglo-Norman equivalents to English words (not phrases) but you will need a good grounding in Anglo-Norman grammar and culture to be able to use these terms convincingly. This should only take you around four years of intensive study to learn . . . You should also be aware that Norman French is not the same language that was spoken in France at that time and the Normans did not consider themselves to be French or even related to the French. As for 11th century Welsh, the language at that time is termed "Old Welsh" (Hen Gymraeg) and this can only be accessed via a University Graduate course as far as I am aware. The is… [cont.]
Answered by Brother Ranulf - Tue Dec 16 14:06:02 2008
What is the genetic lineage of people of Great Britain?
Q. The Celts originally occupied the British isles, then the angles, and saxons came from northern germany, then viking raiders came, and eventually french from the norman conquest. Genetically what group are British people most? West Germanic,Celtic, French, Scandinavian, etc?
Asked by ihaveissues - Mon Jan 1 13:44:52 2007 - - 1 Answers - 1 Comments
A. As you pointed out, there have been a lot of noses poked into Britain. Still, when you look far back enough, you can see that the lines tend to blur. So there is no definite answer, but there are some signs that can help. The build and body type of the average native Briton is very similar to that of the Scandinavian and a bit German. This is indicative of major influence from these people. The Celtic people have blended into society today, and at best are represented in Normandy. By the same token, the Norman conquest was of this area. So there is a lot of overalap as well. Personally, I think Brits are, on the whole, Scandinavian influenced with a good portion of Anglo-Saxon blood. For French blood to be the primary genetic trend,… [cont.]
Answered by Sean D - Mon Jan 1 17:25:24 2007
Q. The Celts originally occupied the British isles, then the angles, and saxons came from northern germany, then viking raiders came, and eventually french from the norman conquest. Genetically what group are British people most? West Germanic,Celtic, French, Scandinavian, etc?
Asked by ihaveissues - Mon Jan 1 13:44:52 2007 - - 1 Answers - 1 Comments
A. As you pointed out, there have been a lot of noses poked into Britain. Still, when you look far back enough, you can see that the lines tend to blur. So there is no definite answer, but there are some signs that can help. The build and body type of the average native Briton is very similar to that of the Scandinavian and a bit German. This is indicative of major influence from these people. The Celtic people have blended into society today, and at best are represented in Normandy. By the same token, the Norman conquest was of this area. So there is a lot of overalap as well. Personally, I think Brits are, on the whole, Scandinavian influenced with a good portion of Anglo-Saxon blood. For French blood to be the primary genetic trend,… [cont.]
Answered by Sean D - Mon Jan 1 17:25:24 2007
From Yahoo Answer Search: 'norman french'
Fri Jul 30 20:38:20 2010 [ refresh local cache ]
